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- From: Pablo Argon <pargon AT cadence.com>
- To: Eduardo.Gimenez AT trusted-logic.fr, coq-club <coq-club AT pauillac.inria.fr>
- Cc: Ken McMillan <mcmillan AT cadence.com>
- Subject: Re: Equality of functions
- Date: Tue, 16 May 2000 16:54:33 -0700
- Organization: Cadence Berkeley Laboratories
Eduardo Gimenez wrote:
>
> Dear Pablo,
>
> This "simple equality" says that any pair of programs producing the
> same output on any input has the same source code. In particular, taking
> A=B=(list nat),f =quicksort and g=mergesort, you claim that both mergesort
> and quicksort are the same program. That's not true, but you can add it as
> an
> axiom without compromising Coq's consistency.
> Le mar, 16 mai 2000, Pablo Argon a écrit :
> > Hi all,
> > I wonder how to prove this simple equality :
> >
> > Theorem ff_is_gg : (A,B:Set;ff,gg:A->B)
> > ((x:A)(ff x)=(gg x))<->([x:A](ff x))=([x:A](gg x)).
> >
Dear Eduardo and Coq users,
I understand your remark and agree that the
"simple equality" I meant cannot be the Coq's eq relation, is
an <<intentional equality>>.
In fact, what I was looking for is a kind of "Proof Irrelevance
principle",
allowing me to prove, for example;
Lemma PfIrrelevance :
(A:Set)(P:Prop)(f:P->A)(q1,q2:P) (f q1) = (f q2).
In my understanding, even if q1 and q2 are different proofs of a given
property, in what sense the value of f may depend on this, in order to
make the equality (f q1) = (f q2) not provable ?
In practice, when dealing with dependent types we need to prove
something in the taste of:
Lemma HowtoRewriteHere :
(A:Set)(B:A->Prop)
(a,a':A)(a=a')->(t,t':(sig A B))
(b:(B a))(t=(exist A B a b))->
(b':(B a')) (t'=(exist A B a' b'))-> t=t'.
in order to rewrite and go further.
Perhaps I'm missing something deep here...
Cheers,
Pablo
- Equality of functions, Pablo Argon
- Re: Equality of functions,
Eduardo Gimenez
- Re: Equality of functions, Pablo Argon
- Re: Equality of functions, Benjamin Werner
- Re: Equality of functions, Pablo Argon
- Re: Equality of functions,
Eduardo Gimenez
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