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- From: Eduardo Gimenez <Eduardo.Gimenez AT trusted-logic.fr>
- To: Jean-Yves Vion-Dury <jean-yves.vion-dury AT inrialpes.fr>
- Cc: coq-club AT pauillac.inria.fr
- Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] How to prove (a,b:Z) a=b == b=a ?
- Date: Wed, 27 Aug 2003 12:13:55 +0200
- List-archive: <http://pauillac.inria.fr/pipermail/coq-club/>
- Organization: Trusted Logic
Hello,
I am afraid that this is simply not provable in Coq: is like saying that
(A,B,C:Prop)(A/\B->C)==(B/\A->C). You should not confuse being logically
equivalent (ie, the existence of a function transforming each proof of the
right hand side proposition into a proof of the left hand side one) with
being intentionally equal (ie, being exactly the same statement, up to the
computation rules).
Best wishes,
Eduardo.
On Wednesday 27 August 2003 11:06, Jean-Yves Vion-Dury wrote:
> Probably this is simple for many of you.
>
> Unfortunately, as a beginner, I can't find a simple elegant solution
> (nor the uggly one, I must say...).
>
> I wanted to use sym_eq , but I can't find out how to apply it to a
> subterm of the goal...
>
> Many thanks in advance.
> Jean-Yves
- [Coq-Club] How to prove (a,b:Z) a=b == b=a ?, Jean-Yves Vion-Dury
- Re: [Coq-Club] How to prove (a,b:Z) a=b == b=a ?, Eduardo Gimenez
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