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Re: [Coq-Club] a claim about prime numbers


chronological Thread 
  • From: Taral <taralx AT gmail.com>
  • To: "Flavio L. C. de Moura" <flaviomoura AT unb.br>
  • Cc: coq-club AT inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] a claim about prime numbers
  • Date: Sat, 22 May 2010 21:01:18 +0100
  • Domainkey-signature: a=rsa-sha1; c=nofws; d=gmail.com; s=gamma; h=mime-version:in-reply-to:references:from:date:message-id:subject:to :cc:content-type; b=p6vn7J0GyPgYOsSti0roBuUIphP4DvjrKQVtMXwlLuRk2ELWCBlKnjO+O3eMkDAjHe QAF8sRZpSr1mDFcysbHsDwCg27hMXW41pMJvJEU1DWb4dulHIxfsEAa4hjEa3kEjON7V iDHbYPdvlXiQ0xR6cA8QVXFYiHEqs/zeprBhU=

On Sat, May 22, 2010 at 7:36 PM, Flavio L. C. de Moura
<flaviomoura AT unb.br>
 wrote:
> I am afraid this theorem cannot be proved in Coq because in a certain
> sense we cannot find the exact k such that i divides (n-i+k) (1<=k<i)...
> is that true? Any comments is very welcome!

The first step in creating a coq proof is being able to prove your
statement to yourself and understanding how the proof works. If you
can't prove it at a high level, then (in my experience) coq will not
help you.

So... how would you prove this statement of yours on paper?

-- 
Taral 
<taralx AT gmail.com>
"Please let me know if there's any further trouble I can give you."
    -- Unknown



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