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Re: [Coq-Club] Can I prove equality of sigT given its condition?


Chronological Thread 
  • From: Adam Chlipala <adamc AT csail.mit.edu>
  • To: coq-club AT inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] Can I prove equality of sigT given its condition?
  • Date: Fri, 08 Aug 2014 08:31:06 -0400

I suggest reading the lemma statement more carefully. IMO, it's clearly false even in common intuitive interpretations, and Coq agrees.

Theorem not_existence_exists : ~(forall A (a : A) (P : A -> Prop), (exists y : A, P y) = P a).
Proof.
intro Hnee.
specialize (Hnee bool false (eq true)).
assert (exists y, true = y) by eauto.
rewrite Hnee in H.
discriminate.
Qed.


On 08/08/2014 02:35 AM, John Wiegley wrote:
I'm trying to prove the following lemma:

Lemma existence_exists {A} (a : A) (P : A → Prop) : (∃ y : A, P y) = P a.

I cannot find the right tactic to prove that given 'a', these two statements
are effectively equal. Any hints?



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