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- From: Michael Shulman <>
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- Subject: [ssreflect] Why is "<" a notation?
- Date: Sun, 21 Jun 2015 22:32:54 -0700
Hello,
In the homotopy type theory Coq library we have started using some of
the basic definitions and proofs about natural numbers inspired by
SSR. However there is one thing I am puzzled by: why is "n < m" a
Notation for "S n <= m" rather than a Definition? I appreciate the
advantage of having the two be judgmentally equal, but it's not
obvious to me why one would want them to be syntactically equal (i.e.
without having to unfold a definition). Moreover, I find it confusing
to have hypotheses of the form "S n <= m" automatically transformed
into "n < m" (e.g. in the inductive step of an induction on n with a
previous hypothesis of "n <= m"); the two are not syntactically equal
in my head. Can someone explain?
Thanks!
Mike
- [ssreflect] Why is "<" a notation?, Michael Shulman, 06/22/2015
- Re: [ssreflect] Why is "<" a notation?, Assia Mahboubi, 06/23/2015
- Message not available
- Re: [ssreflect] Why is "<" a notation?, Michael Shulman, 06/29/2015
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