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- From: Satrajit Roy <satrajit.roy AT gmail.com>
- To: coq-club AT inria.fr
- Subject: [Coq-Club] Re: Syntax question ...
- Date: Wed, 9 Feb 2011 18:21:11 -0500
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Also, I found an exercise in an older book (circa 1990s) which reads something like: prove that (A=>B)=>(B=>A)
I wrote :
Theorem foo: forall a b:Prop, (a->b)->(b->a).
But I cannot prove foo.
Of course if I write:
Theorem foo':forall a b:Prop, a->(a->b)->(b->a) , it seems logical to assume a and is provable as well.
But it doesn't seem like foo and foo' equivalent, are they?
On Wed, Feb 9, 2011 at 5:51 PM, Satrajit Roy <satrajit.roy AT gmail.com> wrote:
What is the correct way to express statements like the following in the Coq environment?
for all x, exists y such that A(x, y) => exists y, for all x such that A(x, y) and the converse of it
--
Satrajit
--
Satrajit
- [Coq-Club] Syntax question ..., Satrajit Roy
- Re: [Coq-Club] Syntax question ..., Evgeny Makarov
- [Coq-Club] Re: Syntax question ..., Satrajit Roy
- Re: [Coq-Club] Re: Syntax question ..., Pierre Casteran
- Re: [Coq-Club] Re: Syntax question ..., roconnor
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