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Re: [Coq-Club] Why is it wrong to declare a proven theorem as axiom?


chronological Thread 
  • From: Conor McBride <conor AT strictlypositive.org>
  • To: "gallais @ ensl.org" <guillaume.allais AT ens-lyon.org>
  • Cc: Georgi Guninski <guninski AT guninski.com>, "coq-club AT inria.fr" <coq-club AT inria.fr>
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] Why is it wrong to declare a proven theorem as axiom?
  • Date: Thu, 23 Jun 2011 22:13:55 +0100

Hi

British political comedy "Yes, Minister" featured the notorious exchange (for a specific P):

Official: There's a rumour that P.
Minister: Is it true?
Official: It's true that it's a rumour.

The assertion that P is proven to be a proposition is distinct from the assertion that P is a proposition which has been proven.

There remains the technical question of why it is ever necessary to conclude a proof of proposition P with Defined rather than the opaque Qed. (Why does it hurt to take a provable P as an axiom?) The trouble is that some propositions can be eliminated *strictly* over Set, in your actual programs. Strict eliminations get stuck if you feed them axioms, but compute if you feed them proofs which reduce to canonical form. Replacing proofs by axioms thus inhibits definitional equality and restricts typability.

With care, it is possible to restrict propositions to those which can be eliminated *lazily*, and thence acquire proof irrelevance in the definitional equality as well as erasability in extraction. By this criterion, accessibility is not propositional (but none the less erasable by travaux de Brady), observational equality is propositonal, and homotopic equality is neither propositional nor erasable.

Cheers

Conor



On 23 Jun 2011, at 17:30, "gallais @ ensl.org" <guillaume.allais AT ens-lyon.org > wrote:

Hi Georgi,

Your [Theorem T : Prop] proves that [Prop] is inhabited while
your [Axiom A : T] states that [T] is inhabited.

These statements are not equivalent.

Cheers,

--
guillaume



On 23 June 2011 18:03, Georgi Guninski 
<guninski AT guninski.com>
 wrote:
I am investigating fake proofs that look plausible to human forensics.

Why is it wrong to declare a proven theorem as an axiom? (this appears counter intuitive to me)

Theorem T : Prop.
exact False.
Defined.

Axiom A : T.

Lemma FUCKMS: False.
pose proof A. compute in H. contradiction.
Defined.

Coq < Print Assumptions FUCKMS.
Axioms:
A : T

If $T$ were False, how was it proven as a theorem?

Thank you.

--
joro




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