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- From: Adam Chlipala <adamc AT csail.mit.edu>
- To: coq-club AT inria.fr
- Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y
- Date: Mon, 03 Jun 2013 07:37:33 -0400
On 06/02/2013 05:45 PM, Floyd Lee wrote:
Is this deceptively simple theorem provable in Coq's logic?
Lemma sig_map_eq : forall
{A : Type}
(P : A -> Prop)
(x y : sig P),
proj1_sig x = proj1_sig y -> x = y.
No, I think this is close to one of the standard corollaries of Axiom K, for which an axiom-free proof isn't known. Perhaps this fact has even been proved independent of CIC, as K has.
The library fact I'm thinking of is [inj_pair2], which you can get at after [Require Import Eqdep]. An important difference is that [inj_pair2] is about [sigT] instead of [sig], and also it only concludes something about one component of a pair.
On the bright side, when [A] has decidable equality, you may be able to use [Eqdep_dec]-y tricks to prove your lemma!
- [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Floyd Lee, 06/03/2013
- Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Adam Chlipala, 06/03/2013
- Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Pierre-Marie Pédrot, 06/03/2013
- Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Pierre-Marie Pédrot, 06/03/2013
- Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Christian Doczkal, 06/03/2013
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: [Coq-Club] Provability of (proj_sig1 x) = (proj_sig1 y) -> x = y, Floyd Lee, 06/03/2013
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