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Re: [Coq-Club] is the axiom of choice... ?


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  • From: Thomas Payne <thp AT cs.ucr.edu>
  • To: coq-club AT inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] is the axiom of choice... ?
  • Date: Sun, 11 Sep 2016 10:45:16 -0700
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In set theory without urelements, per the axiom of extensionality, the content of a singleton is its interstection, which is equal to its union.


On 9/11/16 9:33 AM, Daniel de Rauglaudre wrote:
When I said "false", I was talking about the fact that it was provable.

On Sun, Sep 11, 2016 at 05:40:14PM +0200, Dominique Larchey-Wendling wrote:
Well it is not provable in Coq. But it is not false ...

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Le 11 septembre 2016 11:35:57 Daniel de Rauglaudre
<daniel.de_rauglaudre AT inria.fr>
a écrit :

Ah indeed, axiom of unique choice... thanks. It is because somebody
told me the choice was computable in that case but I could not prove
it. Normal, if it is false :-)

On Sun, Sep 11, 2016 at 11:22:25AM +0200, Dominique Larchey-Wendling wrote:
I think it is called reification in Coq. And yes it is the axiom of
unique choice... The relation does not contain enough information to
compute the value. Unless P is decidable and the type is enumerable
of course.

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Le 11 septembre 2016 11:09:23 Daniel de Rauglaudre
<daniel.de_rauglaudre AT inria.fr>
a écrit :

Hi all,

Is the axiom of choice required if all sets have one only element ?
If not, how to prove it ?

Russel said that if all sets contain a pair of socks, we need the axiom
of choice to select a sock in each pair but that if they are shoes,
we don't need it, because the choice function can be : "take the left
shoe".

But for sets of one only element ?

Namely, I want to prove :
(∀ x, ∃! y, P x y) → ∃ f, ∀ x, P x (f x)

Is is possible, or do I need the fucking axiom of choice ?

Thanks.

--
Daniel de Rauglaudre
http://pauillac.inria.fr/~ddr/
--
Daniel de Rauglaudre
http://pauillac.inria.fr/~ddr/




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