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Re: [Coq-Club] is "(A<->B)->((F A)<->(F B))" provable ?


chronological Thread 
  • From: Vincent Aravantinos <vincent.aravantinos AT gmail.com>
  • To: gang chen <gangchen_sh AT yahoo.com>
  • Cc: coq-club AT pauillac.inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] is "(A<->B)->((F A)<->(F B))" provable ?
  • Date: Thu, 14 Feb 2008 10:54:17 +0100
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Le 14 févr. 08 à 00:17, gang chen a écrit :


More precisely, is the assertion

Goal equiv : forall (F : Prop->Prop) (A B : Prop),
   (A<->B)->((F A)<->(F B)).

provable ?

I believe this conjecture is false without further restriction on F.


(I'm not a specialist so I'm not sure the following reasonning is ok. Many people on this list are more qualified than I am, so if I'm wrong we will know it quickly :)

Assume you are given two functions (f:Prop -> nat) and (g:nat -> Prop), and then define a F like this:

Definition F (P:Prop) : Prop -> Prop := g (1 + f P).

I don't see any reason why such a function would respect your conjecture.

Vincent





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