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Re: [Coq-Club] Asking about boolean equality function


chronological Thread 
  • From: David Baelde <david.baelde AT gmail.com>
  • To: Jean-Francois Monin <jean-francois.monin AT imag.fr>
  • Cc: "Ly Kim Quyen (Gwenhael)" <lykimq AT gmail.com>, coq-club AT inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] Asking about boolean equality function
  • Date: Mon, 25 Jul 2011 10:06:56 +0200

On Mon, Jul 25, 2011 at 9:38 AM, Jean-Francois Monin
<jean-francois.monin AT imag.fr>
 wrote:
> Because A <-> B, by definition, is A -> B /\ B-> A.
> f : A -> B can be applied to an argument x:A,
> g: A <-> B cannot, only (fst g) can.

The confusion might come from the fact that when using tactics, and in
particular the "apply" tactics, the iff (<->) is implicitly converted
to either of its directions. For example, "apply bcoef_pos_ok" would
have worked on the goal "coef_pos n p", yielding the subgoal
"bcoef_pos n p = true". The same does not apply when writing proof
terms directly.

Cheers,
-- 
David



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