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Re: [Coq-Club] Tacit implications in Goedel's theorems II – Re: True arithmetical proposition not provable


Chronological Thread 
  • From: Ralf Jung <jung AT mpi-sws.org>
  • To: coq-club AT inria.fr, Marco Servetto <marco.servetto AT gmail.com>
  • Subject: Re: [Coq-Club] Tacit implications in Goedel's theorems II – Re: True arithmetical proposition not provable
  • Date: Thu, 24 Jun 2021 10:56:35 +0200
  • Authentication-results: mail2-smtp-roc.national.inria.fr; spf=None smtp.pra=jung AT mpi-sws.org; spf=Pass smtp.mailfrom=jung AT mpi-sws.org; spf=None smtp.helo=postmaster AT jupiter.mpi-klsb.mpg.de
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One of my favorite examples of incompleteness is the value of the busy beaver function for "large" inputs, where I think "large" has been brought down below 1000 at this point.
See §4.2 of <https://www.scottaaronson.com/papers/bb.pdf> (but the bound of 7910 states there has been improved since then):

There’s an explicit 7910-state Turing machine that halts iff the set theory
ZF + SRP (where SRP means Stationary Ramsey Property) is inconsistent. Thus,
assuming that
theory is consistent, ZF cannot prove the value of BB(7910).

Kind regards,
Ralf

On 24.06.21 04:48, Marco Servetto wrote:
I'm more and more confused, but now I have an example that may help to
clarify (and ends up hitting non-standard numbers too)
-One of the typical examples for Propositions that may not be provable
is termination of programs:
-lets have "halt(p) = n" a partial function from program->nat, that returns
the
number of steps the program p takes to terminate.
- For all terminating programs, their execution trace is a valid and
finite 'proof of termination'
- For some programs, there is no proof of neither
Exists n: halt(p)=n nor not Exists n: halt(p)=n
-Those programs do not terminate, otherwise we would have a
termination proof using their execution trace.

-Question1: Where is the 'model' that defines 'truth' in my reasoning above?

-Question2: If I can somehow write down one of those programs, I
could add as an axiom that Exists n: halt(p)=n, and the system should
still be unable to prove true=false, right? is then such 'n' a non
standard number? Is the reason we keep talking about non standard
numbers connected with this question/issue?

Marco.

On Thu, 24 Jun 2021 at 06:44, Ken Kubota <mail AT kenkubota.de> wrote:

This is exactly my position!
(I read this after writing the other email.)

All presentations of Goedel's theorems tacitly (implicitly) convey a specific
philosophical approach without being conscious of the relativity of the
approach as a whole when relying on a metatheory.

Philosophically, relying on a metatheory is even self-contradictory.


Kind regards,

Ken Kubota

____________________________________________________

Ken Kubota
https://doi.org/10.4444/100



Am 22.06.2021 um 11:11 schrieb Pierre-Marie Pédrot
<pierre-marie.pedrot AT inria.fr>:

What does that mean? Truth is always relative to your meta-theory so you
can't say much about "satisfaction in the meta" without explicitly
specifying the rules of your meta.

I personally really hate the phrasing of Gödel's incompleteness theorem
as "there are unprovable true statements" because it's implicitly
referring to the meta and confusing the reader about some grand and
transcendental notion of "truth" when this does not exist. Except maybe
when you're a Girard fan and / or some neo-Popperian believer, in which
case you may claim that Π01 formulae are falsifiable in the only
standard model we have, a.k.a. our local universe, and thus there is
some well-behaved notion of truth for these (but not above).

Incompleteness is really a boring theorem that can be phrased purely in
terms of provability without any irrelevant references to truth,
anchovies or hairy Schwarzschild black holes.



--
Website: https://people.mpi-sws.org/~jung/



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