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Re: ?spam? Re: [Coq-Club] applying at the same time two hypothesis to solve a goal.


chronological Thread 
  • From: Yves Bertot <Yves.Bertot AT sophia.inria.fr>
  • To: "Theodoros G. Tsokos" <T.Tsokos AT cs.bham.ac.uk>
  • Cc: Adam Chlipala <adamc AT cs.berkeley.edu>, coq-club AT pauillac.inria.fr
  • Subject: Re: ?spam? Re: [Coq-Club] applying at the same time two hypothesis to solve a goal.
  • Date: Sun, 13 Apr 2008 09:29:23 +0200
  • List-archive: <http://pauillac.inria.fr/pipermail/coq-club/>

Theodoros G. Tsokos wrote:
...
Well, let me be more precise, as I think that my example wasn't the most appropriate one.

Assuming that I have *op_and* defined, as the logical operator between two terms b1 b2. Let *FF* be an inductive definition:

Inductive FF:  env->term->type->Prop :=
....
| C4: forall G b1 b2, FF G b1 expr -> FF G b2 expr -> FF G (op_and b1 b2) expr
....

And assuming that in my Lemma, I want to prove the following subgoal:

...
G : env
b1: term
b2: term
v1: bool
v2: bool
t: type
...

 H1 : FF G b1 t -> FF G v1 t
 H2 : FF G b2 t -> FF G v2 t
================================
  FF G (op_and b1 b2) t -> FF G (v1 && v2) t


Is is possible to prove it? I think it should be, as I proved this lemma on paper properly.

Thanks again,
Theo.
What you are showing is still confusing as it looks to be not well-typed.
Is there a coercion from bool to term? Are there other constructors in the definition of FF that conclude
with "op_and ..."?

Yves





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